Miss Q from McScotchville writes:
‘Dear GrammarBloggers,
In purchasing cheese derived from the milk of a goat, I want to make sure I buy the most ideologically sound brand. I have seen “goats cheese”, “goat’s cheese” and “goats’ cheese” in my local middle-class deli.
Is it the case that there should be no apostrophe because it doesn’t actually belong to the goat/s, it just comes from the goat/s?
For which should I plump?’.
All suggestions are as welcome as cheese to a Barnsley-supporting man from Wakefield (are in-jokes strictly a good way to provoke interest in a Blog?)

Comment by Paul — 29th June, 2007 @ 5:06 pm
Comment by Gez — 29th June, 2007 @ 5:18 pm
Comment by Tom — 29th June, 2007 @ 6:47 pm